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UPSC release official notification for CDS exam 2019. Candidates can fill online applications for the CDS (I) exam can be submitted till November 26, 2018, at the official website of the UPSC – upsconline.nic.in. The Union Public Service Commission will conduct the CDS (I) exam 2019 on February 3, 2019. The candidates are advised to visit the official website of UPSC to find more details on the same.

CDS 1 Date for Online Application Form

  1. The Online Applications can be filled upto 26th November, 2018 till 6:00 PM.
  2. The online Applications can be withdrawn from 03.12.2018 to 10.12.2018 till 6.00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding withdrawal of Applications is available at Appendix-II (B).

  3. The Union Public Service Commission on 3rd February, 2019 for admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, Officers Training Academy

Name of the Course and Approximate No. of Vacancies:

1. Indian Military Academy, Dehradun—148th (DE) Course commencing in January, 2020 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders] 100
2. Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala—Course commencing in January, 2020 Executive (General Service)/Hydro [including 06 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders (Naval Wing)]. 45
3. Air Force Academy, Hyderabad—(Pre-Flying) Training Course commencing in January, 2020 i.e. No. 207 F(P) Course. [03 vacancies are reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Air Wing) holders through NCC Spl. Entry] 32
4.  Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras)—111th   SSC (Men) Course (NT) commencing in April, 2020 [(i) 171 vacs for SSC (Men) (NT) UPSC, (ii) 04 vacs for JAG (Men) (NT) April, 2020 Non UPSC and (iii) 50 vacs for NCC Special entry Non UPSC]. 255
5. Officers Training Academy, Chennai—25th SSC Women (Non-Technical) Course commencing in April, 2020. 15
Total 417

NOTE (i): The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission.

NOTE (ii): The number of vacancies given above is tentative and may be changed at any stage by Services H. Q.

CDS I Examination Centre

Agartala Gangtok Panaji (Goa)
Ahmedabad Hyderabad Patna
Aizawl Imphal Port Blair
Allahabad Itanagar Raipur
Bengaluru Jaipur Ranchi
Bareilly Jammu Sambalpur
Bhopal Jorhat Shillong
Chandigarh Kochi Shimla
Chennai Kohima Srinagar
Cuttack Kolkata Thiruvananthapuram
Dehradun Lucknow Tirupati
Delhi Madurai Udaipur
Dharwad Mumbai Visakhapatnam
Dispur Nagpur

Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.

Conditions of Eligibility:

Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried and must either be

  1. a Citizen of India, or
  2. a subject of Bhutan, or
  3. a subject of Nepal, or
  4. Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
  5. a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt. before declaration of result by UPSC.

Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status

  1. For IMA—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 1996 and not later than 1st January, 2001 only are eligible.

  2. For Indian Naval Academy—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 1996 and not later than 1st January, 2001 only are eligible.

  3. For Air Force Academy—20 to 24 years as on 1st January, 2020 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January, 1996 and not later than 1st January, 2000 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January, 1994 and not later than 1st January, 2000) only are eligible. Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.

  4. For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 1995 and not later than 1st January, 2001 only are eligible.

  5. For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible.

They should have been born not earlier than 2nd January, 1995 and not later than 1st January, 2001.

NOTE: Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of their admission in IMA/INA/AFA courses and accordingly they are not eligible for these courses.

Educational Qualifications:

  1. For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy— Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
  2. For Indian Naval Academy—Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution.
  3. For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.

Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of graduation provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.

CDS 1 Exam Pattern

The Competitive examination comprises:

  1. Written examination as shown in para 2 below.
  2. Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.

The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:

For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy

S.N. Subject Duration Maximum Marks
1 English 2 Hours 100
2 General Knowledge 2 Hours 100
3 Elementary Mathematics 2 Hours 100

For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy

S.N. Subject Duration Maximum Marks
1 English 2 Hours 100
2 General Knowledge 2 Hours 100

The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300, 300, 300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy respectively.

  • The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test Booklets) of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be set bilingually in Hindi as well as English.
  • In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
  • Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
  • The Commission has discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
  • The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

CDS 1 Exam Syllabus

English (Code No. 01)

The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words.

General Knowledge (Code No. 02)

General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study.

Elementary Mathematics (Code No. 03)

ARITHMETIC: Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation.

Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.

ALGEBRA: Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices.

TRIGONOMETRY: Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90°

Simple trigonometric identities

Use of trigonometric tables

Simple cases of heights and distances

GEOMETRY: Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.

MENSURATION: Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.

STATISTICS: Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.


  1. The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process – stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:-
    1. Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
    2. Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

    The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.

    The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.

Penalty for wrong Answers

There Will Be Penalty (Negative Marking) For Wrong Answers Marked By A Candidate In The Objective Type Question Papers.

  1. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
  2. If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.
  3. If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Physical Standards for Candidates for Combined Defence Services Examination

Note-I: Candidates must be physically and mentally fit according to the prescribed physical standards. Medical fitness criteria given below are as per existing guidelines as on date of publication and these guidelines are subject to revision.

A number of qualified candidates are rejected subsequently on medical grounds. Candidates are, therefore, advised in their own interest to get themselves medically examined before submitting their applications to avoid disappointment at the final stage.

Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects /ailments in order to speed up finalization of medical examination conducted at the Military Hospital after being recommended by SSBs.

Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below

  1. Wax (ears)
  2. Deviated Nasal Septum
  3. Hydrocele/Varicocele/Phimosis
  4. Overweight/Underweight
  5. Piles and
  6. Gynaecomastia

Note-II: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Commandant Selection Centre will be competent authority for clearing such cases.

  1. A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Women candidates will undergo Medical Examination by a Medical Board comprising male/female doctors/specialists/Gynaecologist. There will be a Lady Medical Officer as Member of Board. Only those candidates will be admitted to the Academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and procedure for request for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB) will also be intimated to the candidate.

Candidates who are unfit may apply for Appeal Medical Board (AMB) to be completed within 42 days of SMB and may request for Review Medical Board (RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal Medical Board. Candidates declared unfit by AMB will be intimated by the President AMB about procedure of challenging the findings of AMB. The candidates will also be intimated that holding Review Medical Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that RMB is not a matter of right. The candidate should address the request for RMB if he/she so desires to DG Rtg. (CDSE) Army HQ., West Block-III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 and DMS (MB)/DGMS (Air), Air HQ, R.K. Puram in case of AF candidates and a copy of the same is handed over to the President of AMB. The O/o the DGAFMS will inform the date and place (Delhi and Pune only) where the candidate will appear for a RMB. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical standards which are summarized below:

  1. The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance of duties.
  2. There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or underweight. The candidate should not be overweight or obese.
  3. The minimum acceptable height for male candidates is 157.5 cms. (157 cms for Navy and 162.5 cms for Air Force). For Women candidates minimum acceptable height is 152 cms. For Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of North-Eastern region of India, Garhwali and Kumaon, the Minimum acceptable height will be 5 cms less. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep, the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cms.

These concessions are not applicable for Air Force Height and Weight standards are given below for Army and Navy only. Interpolation for weights against height not mentioned may be done.

Height and Weight Standards (Males)

Height in Centimeters (Without shoes) 18 years 20 years 22 years 24 years
152 44* 46 47 48
155 46 48@ 49 50
157 47 49 50 51
160 48 50 51 52
162 50 52 53 54
165 52 53 55 56
168 53 55 57 58
170 55 57 58 59
173 57 59 60 61
175 59 61 62 62
178 61 62 63 64
180 63 64 65 66
183 65 67 67 68
185 67 69 70 71
188 70 71 72 74
190 72 73 74 76
193 74 76 77 78
195 77 78 79 81

*45 for Navy @ 47 for Navy

A ± 10% (for Navy) departure from the average weight given in the Table above is to be considered within normal limit. However, in individuals with heavy bones and broad built as well as individuals with thin built but otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.

Height and Weight Standards (Females)

Height in Centimeters (Without shoes) 20 years 25 years 30 years
148 39 41 43
150 40 42 43.5
153 42 43.5 45
155 43 44 46
158 45 46 48
160 46 47 49
163 47 49 51
165 49 51 53
168 50 52 54

The acceptable weight for Air Force candidates will be ± 10% of the average weight given below


Ht. in mm Age Range
15-17 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37 38-42 43-47 >48
1520 46 47 50 54 54 54 55 54
1530 47 47 51 55 55 54 56 54
1540 47 48 51 56 55 55 57 55
1550 48 49 52 56 56 56 57 56
1560 48 49 53 57 57 56 58 56
1570 49 50 54 58 58 57 58 57
1580 49 50 54 58 58 58 59 58
1590 50 51 55 59 59 59 60 58
1600 51 52 56 59 60 59 60 59
1610 51 52 56 60 60 60 61 60
1620 52 53 57 61 61 61 62 60
1630 52 54 58 61 62 61 62 61
1640 53 54 59 62 63 62 63 62
1650 53 55 59 63 63 63 64 62
1660 54 56 60 63 64 64 64 63
1670 54 56 61 64 65 64 65 64
1680 55 57 61 65 65 65 65 65
1690 55 57 62 65 66 66 66 65
1700 56 58 63 66 67 67 67 66
1710 56 59 64 66 68 67 67 67
1720 57 59 64 67 68 66 68 67
1730 58 60 65 68 69 69 69 68
1740 58 61 66 68 70 69 69 69
1750 59 61 66 69 71 70 70 69
1760 59 62 67 70 71 71 71 70
1770 60 62 68 70 72 72 71 71
1780 60 63 69 71 73 72 72 71
1790 61 64 69 72 73 73 73 72
1800 61 64 70 72 74 74 73 73
1810 62 65 71 73 75 75 74 73
1820 62 66 72 74 76 75 74 74
1830 63 66 72 74 76 76 75 75
1840 64 67 73 75 77 77 76 75
1850 64 68 74 75 78 77 76 76
1860 65 68 74 76 78 78 77 77
1870 65 69 75 77 79 79 78 77
1880 66 69 76 77 80 80 78 78
1890 66 70 77 78 81 80 79 79
1900 67 71 77 79 81 81 80 79
1910 67 71 78 79 82 82 80 80
1920 68 72 79 80 83 82 81 81
1930 68 73 79 81 83 83 81 82
SD 6 6.3 7.1 6.6 6.9 6.8 5.8 7.26
  • Chest should be well developed. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that its lower edge should touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should touch the lower angle of the shoulder blades behind. X-ray of the chest is compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest. Routine X-ray Spine is not carried out of Navy Candidates.
  • There should be no mal-development or impairment of function of the bones or joint.
  • A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown or fits.
  • The hearing should be normal. A candidate should be able to hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms in a quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past disease of the ear, nose and throat. There is no impediment of speech.
  • There should be no signs of functional or organic disease of the heart and blood vessels, Blood pressure should be normal.
  • There should be no enlargement of liver or spleen. Any evidence of disease of internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for rejection.
  • Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. In case of Hernia which has been operated, a minimum of six months must have passed prior to final medical examination.
  • There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles.
  • Urine examination will be done and any abnormality if detected will be a cause for rejection.
  • Any disease of skin which is likely to cause disability or disfigurement will also be a cause for rejection.
  • USG abdomen examination will be carried out and any congenital structural anomaly or disease of the abdominal organs will be a cause for rejection.
  • The candidates should have sufficient number of natural and sound teeth. A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth are present, the total dental points are 22. A candidate should not be suffering from severe pyorrhoea.
  • Vision Standards for Naval Candidates :-
Uncorrected without glasses 6/12, 6/12
Corrected with glasses 6/6, 6/6
Limits of Myopia -1.5D
Limits of Hypermetropia +1.5D
Binocular Vision III
Limits of Colour Perception I

Read in brief on official website of combined defence services

Pay scale of Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy

Rank Level (Pay in Rs.)
Lieutenant Level 10 56,100 – 1,77,500
Captain Level 10 B 6,13,00-1,93,900
Major Level 11 6,94,00 – 2,07,200
Lieutenant Colonel Level 12A 1,21,200 – 2,12400
Colonel Level 13 1,30,600-2, 15,900
Brigadier Level 13A 1,39,600-2,17,600
Major General Level 14 1,44,200-2,18,200
Lieutenant General HAG Scale Level 15 1, 82, 200-2,24,100
HAG + Scale Level 16 2,05,400 – 2,24,400
VCOAS/Army Cdr/ Lieutenant General (NFSG) Level 17 2,25,000/-(fixed)
COAS Level 18 2,50,000/-(fixed)

MSP to the officer is as follows

Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers from the rank of Lieutenant to Brigadier Rs 15.500 p.m. fixed

Fixed Stipend for cadet Training

Stipend to Gentlemen or Lady Cadets during the entire duration of training in Service academies i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA. Rs 56,100/-p.m.* (Starting pay in Level 10)

* On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell of Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.

Read in brief on official website of combined defence services

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